Why did the USSR not pay a higher political and diplomatic price in the Arab and Muslim world for it
Jul 7, 2022 2:18:03 GMT
gillan1220 likes this
Post by raharris1973 on Jul 7, 2022 2:18:03 GMT
Why did the USSR not pay a higher political and diplomatic price in the Arab and Muslim world for its early support of Israel?
Arguably, the USSR was more decisively and wholeheartedly supportive of Israel than the United States when it counted, at the time of its founding, and during its war of independence.
Supporting examples:
Certainly American citizen donors gave more funds, but the United States imposed an arms embargo on the Israelis (and Arabs) while the Soviets permitted arms sales from their client state Czechslovakia during the war of independence. Arms are pretty important for war. The Israelis did also acquire US arms during the war illegally, but American citizens were prosecuted and punished for involvement in these transactions. The only state-backed arms aid program for Israel in its first war came from the Soviet bloc.
The US was the first to grant "de facto" recognition to Israel, but the USSR was second. And the USSR was first to grant "de jure" recognition to Israel.
Most migration of Jews from Europe to Palestine, while transiting the American zone of Germany, originated from countries in Europe occupied by the Soviet Union and controlled by it or its political clients.
The UN Partition vote - the US and USSR were 'even steven' on this. Both voted for it. Most Soviet allies voted for it (Poland and Czechoslovakia), but not all (Yugoslavia). US allies were a mixed bag - Latin America mostly yes, but with exceptions like Cuba. France and Netherlands yes, Britain and China and Greece, no.
However, even in in Israel's first decade and a half, when the US would not sell arms to Israel, (forcing it to look to Western European sellers), Israel was identified as a US catspaw and creation in the Arab and Muslim world. The US eventually sold some defensive weapons to Israel (late Kennedy Administration) and then offensive (shortly before 6 Day War, not delivered until after).
Meanwhile, the Soviet bloc role in Israel's survival and victory in 47-49 seemed to be quickly forgiven and forgotten. It didn't stop Syria from turning left and taking an international pro-Soviet alignment in early 1955 (Mar), then Egypt from doing the same (summer 1955), then Iraq following suit (1958).
Why was this the case?
(Incidentally, when American government aid to Israel really did explode (alongside a major increase in private aid and bond sales) in size after 1970 that did *not* stop Jordan from aligning closer to the US and did not stop Egypt's shift from the Soviet to US camp).
Arguably, the USSR was more decisively and wholeheartedly supportive of Israel than the United States when it counted, at the time of its founding, and during its war of independence.
Supporting examples:
Certainly American citizen donors gave more funds, but the United States imposed an arms embargo on the Israelis (and Arabs) while the Soviets permitted arms sales from their client state Czechslovakia during the war of independence. Arms are pretty important for war. The Israelis did also acquire US arms during the war illegally, but American citizens were prosecuted and punished for involvement in these transactions. The only state-backed arms aid program for Israel in its first war came from the Soviet bloc.
The US was the first to grant "de facto" recognition to Israel, but the USSR was second. And the USSR was first to grant "de jure" recognition to Israel.
Most migration of Jews from Europe to Palestine, while transiting the American zone of Germany, originated from countries in Europe occupied by the Soviet Union and controlled by it or its political clients.
The UN Partition vote - the US and USSR were 'even steven' on this. Both voted for it. Most Soviet allies voted for it (Poland and Czechoslovakia), but not all (Yugoslavia). US allies were a mixed bag - Latin America mostly yes, but with exceptions like Cuba. France and Netherlands yes, Britain and China and Greece, no.
However, even in in Israel's first decade and a half, when the US would not sell arms to Israel, (forcing it to look to Western European sellers), Israel was identified as a US catspaw and creation in the Arab and Muslim world. The US eventually sold some defensive weapons to Israel (late Kennedy Administration) and then offensive (shortly before 6 Day War, not delivered until after).
Meanwhile, the Soviet bloc role in Israel's survival and victory in 47-49 seemed to be quickly forgiven and forgotten. It didn't stop Syria from turning left and taking an international pro-Soviet alignment in early 1955 (Mar), then Egypt from doing the same (summer 1955), then Iraq following suit (1958).
Why was this the case?
(Incidentally, when American government aid to Israel really did explode (alongside a major increase in private aid and bond sales) in size after 1970 that did *not* stop Jordan from aligning closer to the US and did not stop Egypt's shift from the Soviet to US camp).
